Civil Judge Exam Practice Paper 23

  • December 8, 2016
  • 12:00 am
  • Rakesh Singh Bhadoriya

civil judge exam

1. Under which one of the following Sections of the C.P.C. the Court may ask parties to a dispute to go for mediation ?
(a) Section 88
(b) Section 89
(c) Section 87
(d) Section 86A

Answer: Option B

2. By which one of the amendments of C.P.C. scope of summary trial was substantially widened ?
(a) CPC (Amendment) Act, 1999
(b) CPC (Amendment) Act, 2002
(c) CPC (Amendment)Act, 1976
(d) None of the above

Answer: Option C

3. Under which provision of C.P.C. an Ambassador can be sued ?
(a) Section 86
(b) Section 88
(c) Section 88A
(d) He cannot sued

Answer: Option A

4. Morgan Stanley Mutual Fund V/s Kartik Das case related to which of the following ?
(a) Issuance of Commission
(b) Attachment before judgement
(c) Interim injunction
(d) Affidavits

Answer: Option C

5. When a Court can reject a plaint ?
(a) Where plaintiff fails to comply with Rule – 9.
(b) Where suit is barred by law.
(c) Where plaint is not in duplicate.
(d) All of the above.

Answer: Option D

6. Under C.P.C. find the incorrect match of the following :
(a) Revenue Courts – Section 5
(b) Provincial Small Causes Courts – Section 7
(c) Pecuniary Jurisdiction of Courts – Section 9
(d) Presidency Small Causes Courts – Section 8

Answer: Option C

7. Under Section 13 of CPC which of the following judgements shall not be conclusive ?
(a) Judgement not on merit.
(b) Judgement founded on breach of Indian law.
(c) Judgement against International law.
(d) All of the above

Answer: Option D

8. Rules 6 to 10 of order 39 of C.P.C. deal with
(a) attachment of property
(b) arrest of persons
(c) plaints
(d) interlocutory orders

Answer: Option D

9. Rules relating to interpleader suit have been provided in the C.P.C, under which of the following orders ?
(a) Order 50
(b) Order 35
(c) Order 55
(d) Order 40

Answer: Option B

10. In which of the following case Sir Lawrence Jenkins has observed that “the rule of res judicata, while founded on account of precedent, is directed by a wisdom which is for all times” ?
(a) Lal Chand V/s Radha Kishan
(b) Sheopersan V/s Ramanand Singh
(c) Sulochana Amma V/s Narayanan Nair
(d) Pandurang Ramchandra V/s Shantibai

Answer: Option B

11. What is the essence of pleadings ?
(a) Plead facts not law
(b) Plead law not facts
(c) Plead facts and law
(d) All the above

Answer: Option B

12. The Bill of Evidence Act was prepared by
(a) Fourth Law Commission
(b) Sir Henry Maine
(c) Sir James Stephen
(d) None of the above

Answer: Option C

13. Rule of Res Gestae which means facts forming the part of the same transactions which is the facts in issue is discussed in
(a) Section 6
(b) Section 7
(c) Section 5
(d) Section 8

Answer: Option A

14. The principle of ‘res judicata’ is provided in which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act ?
(a) Section 140
(b) Section 40
(c) Section 160
(d) Section 164

Answer: Option B

15. The principle which preclude a person from denying some statement previously made by him is known as
(a) Admission
(b) Confession
(c) Res subjudice
(d) Estoppel

Answer: Option D

16. Which one of the following is correctly matched under the Indian Evidence Act ?
(a) Burden of proof – Section 101
(b) Dowry Death – Section 122
(c) Dumb witness – Section 107
(d) Accomplice – Section 119

Answer: Option A

17. Rules relating to ‘identification of parade’ are contained in which of the following section of Indian Evidence Act ?
(a) Section 9
(b) Section 19
(c) Section 29
(d) Section 39

Answer: Option A

18. Section 74 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
(a) Testamentary document
(b) Non-Testamentary document
(c) Personal document
(d) Public document

Answer: Option D

19. Under which section of Evidence Act legitimacy of a child born during the lawful wedlock is presumed ?
(a) Section 112
(b) Section 113
(c) Section 114
(d) Section 115

Answer: Option A

20. Any question suggesting the answer is called
(a) Oral question
(b) Special question
(c) Leading question
(d) Hearsay question

Answer: Option C

21. ‘Not proved’ means
(a) It is not proved.
(b) It has been disproved.
(c) It is neither proved nor disproved.
(d) It is denied.

Answer: Option C

22. ‘Proof’ is the result of
(a) Inquiry
(b) Evidence
(c) Investigation
(d) Statement

Answer: Option B

23. “A fact in personal knowledge of the judge can not be taken in evidence.” In which case this had been held ?
(a) Har Prasad V/s Shiva Dayal (1876) 3IA 259
(b) Kashmira Singh V/s State of M.P. 1952 ACR 536
(c) Virendra Kumar Ghosh V/s Emperor ILR (1910) 37 Cal, 474
(d) Pushpa Devi Ramjatia V/s M.L. Wadhwa AIR 1987 SC 1748

Answer: Option B

24. ‘H’ says that ‘Y’ told him that ‘A’ killed ‘B’. This is

(a) Primary evidence
(b) Best evidence
(c) Hearsay evidence
(d) Admission

Answer: Option C

25. “An accomplice is a competent witness against an accused” is provided in which of the following Section of Indian Evidence Act ?
(a) Section 130
(b) Section 131
(c) Section 132
(d) Section 133

Answer: Option D